To begin with, I'm not saying John the Baptist was homosexual! Dr. CraigBridges, resident scholar of the Christian Coalition, however, does! Ifor one would like to know what his qualifications are and of what he claimsto be a "scholar?"

Secondly, God has revealed there are no homosexuals or for that matter,there are no heterosexuals either. God revealed that He created one manwith the capacity to love and of being loved. The Apostle John wrote,

1 John 4:8

He that loveth (sic) not knoweth (sic) not God; for God is love.

I have no knowledge or evidence that John the Baptist, at any pointin his life, had sex with either a man or a woman. However, because someare unwilling to accept the fact and understand that there are mistranslatederrors in the Bible, I merely use the antichrists own translations to showthem the error of their ways and tenants they profess calling them to repentance!

I have to admit that with Dr. Bridges' 5 quarters of Greek, or evenan rudimentary exposure to Greek would be more knowledge of Greek thanI can claim. However, I don't need to be a Nuclear Physicist to know notto rely on my knowledge or lack thereof, of Nuclear Physics nor to writequoting or paraphrasing a Nuclear Physicist or one knowledgeable in NuclearPhysics.

Christ said about John the Baptist to the Jews,

Matthew 11:8

"But what went ye out for to see? A man clothed in soft (malakos)raiment? behold, they that wear soft (malakos) [clothing] are inkings' houses."

Scholars tell me that the Greek word "malakos" was translated in thiscase to mean "soft." I also understand that the 1st century -- the timeframe of a definition is vitally important to fully understand the meaningof the word used -- meaning of "malakos" was "spineless, to be soft, notto have the strength of one's convictions, effeminate (1st century definitionverses the 20th century definition), wishy washy.

Note scholars disagree with Dr. Craig Bridges' definition, e.g. malakosmeans "the passive person of a homosexual sex act" however, to makeand insure Saul of Tarsus' writings in Romans 1:24-27, 1 Cor 6:9 and 1Tim 1:8-10 carried the strongest possible denunciation and condemnation,Dr .Bridges has decided to use his 20th Century definition. God, the Spiritof God and me are willing to concede either definition they want to useto show them the error of their ways.

I read that the Greek word "malakos", "is another Greek word that isfound in the scripture and this word is found four times in the New Testament;it is fond twice in the Gospel of Matthew, once in the gospel of Luke,and once by Saul of Tarsus in the letter to the Corinthians (Matthew 11:8,Luke 7:25, 1 Corinthians 6:9-10).

According to Dr. Bridges of the Christian Coalition, the "correctly"translated word "malakos" means a "passive homosexual", and applying thesame translation of Christ's words concerning John the Baptist, we mustequally apply the same definition and read, "But what went ye out for tosee? A man clothed in homosexual raiment? behold, they that wear homosexual[clothing] are in kings' houses." If John the Baptist wore homosexual clothing,was it merely a fashion statement or was he homosexual. Dr. Craig's translationnot God's.

It doesn't matter to me. Choose which ever you agree with. However,if the word "malakos" means a "passive homosexual, one who is the recipientof intercourse by another man" in Corinthians and Romans as asserted byMr. (aka Dr.) Bridges, then linguistics demands that the translation becarried over to Matthew 11:8 and Christ's referring to John the Baptist.Mr. Bridges, The Christian Coalition and you can not violate linguisticsand have it both ways!

David R.W. Wadsworth
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