To begin with, I'm not saying John the Baptist was homosexual! Dr. Craig Bridges, resident scholar of the Christian Coalition, however, does! I for one would like to know what his qualifications are and of what he claims to be a "scholar?"

Secondly, God has revealed there are no homosexuals or for that matter, there are no heterosexuals either. God revealed that He created one man with the capacity to love and of being loved. The Apostle John wrote,

1 John 4:8

He that loveth (sic) not knoweth (sic) not God; for God is love.

I have no knowledge or evidence that John the Baptist, at any point in his life, had sex with either a man or a woman. However, because some are unwilling to accept the fact and understand that there are mistranslated errors in the Bible, I merely use the antichrists own translations to show them the error of their ways and tenants they profess calling them to repentance!

I have to admit that with Dr. Bridges' 5 quarters of Greek, or even an rudimentary exposure to Greek would be more knowledge of Greek than I can claim. However, I don't need to be a Nuclear Physicist to know not to rely on my knowledge or lack thereof, of Nuclear Physics nor to write quoting or paraphrasing a Nuclear Physicist or one knowledgeable in Nuclear Physics.

Christ said about John the Baptist to the Jews,

Matthew 11:8

"But what went ye out for to see? A man clothed in soft (malakos) raiment? behold, they that wear soft (malakos) [clothing] are in kings' houses."

Scholars tell me that the Greek word "malakos" was translated in this case to mean "soft." I also understand that the 1st century -- the time frame of a definition is vitally important to fully understand the meaning of the word used -- meaning of "malakos" was "spineless, to be soft, not to have the strength of one's convictions, effeminate (1st century definition verses the 20th century definition), wishy washy.

Note scholars disagree with Dr. Craig Bridges' definition, e.g. malakos means "the passive person of a homosexual sex act" however, to make and insure Saul of Tarsus' writings in Romans 1:24-27, 1 Cor 6:9 and 1 Tim 1:8-10 carried the strongest possible denunciation and condemnation, Dr .Bridges has decided to use his 20th Century definition. God, the Spirit of God and me are willing to concede either definition they want to use to show them the error of their ways.

I read that the Greek word "malakos", "is another Greek word that is found in the scripture and this word is found four times in the New Testament; it is fond twice in the Gospel of Matthew, once in the gospel of Luke, and once by Saul of Tarsus in the letter to the Corinthians (Matthew 11:8, Luke 7:25, 1 Corinthians 6:9-10).

According to Dr. Bridges of the Christian Coalition, the "correctly" translated word "malakos" means a "passive homosexual", and applying the same translation of Christ's words concerning John the Baptist, we must equally apply the same definition and read, "But what went ye out for to see? A man clothed in homosexual raiment? behold, they that wear homosexual [clothing] are in kings' houses." If John the Baptist wore homosexual clothing, was it merely a fashion statement or was he homosexual. Dr. Craig's translation not God's.

It doesn't matter to me. Choose which ever you agree with. However, if the word "malakos" means a "passive homosexual, one who is the recipient of intercourse by another man" in Corinthians and Romans as asserted by Mr. (aka Dr.) Bridges, then linguistics demands that the translation be carried over to Matthew 11:8 and Christ's referring to John the Baptist. Mr. Bridges, The Christian Coalition and you can not violate linguistics and have it both ways!
 
 

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